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SSC CGL 2025 — 26 Sep 2025, Shift 2

Official SSC CGL Tier-1 question paper held on 26 September 2025, Shift-2.

📋 SSC 📅 2025 🕐 26 Sep 2025, Shift 2 📝 100 Questions
⏱️ Attempt this paper like a timed mock test
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Q1. Choose the address that is the same as the one given below. Flat No. 6A, Pearl View, Salt Lake, Kolkata, West Bengal-700091
A. Flat No. 6A, Pearl View, Salt Lake, Kolkata, West Bengal-700091 ✓
B. Flat No. 6A, Pearl View, Salt Lake, Kolkata, Assam-700091
C. Flat No. 6A, Pearl View, Salt Lake, Kolkata, Odisha-700091
D. Flat No. 6A, Pearl View, Salt Lake, Kolkata, Bihar-700091
Answer: A
Q2. Seminars were held in Bhopal, Indore, and Raipur on 7th, 9th, and 11th August. • Indore's seminar was held after Bhopal's. • Raipur's seminar was not on 11th August. When was the Indore seminar held?
A. 7th August
B. 9th August ✓
C. 11th August
D. 8th August
Answer: B
Q3. What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series? 76, 80, 71, 87, 62, ?
A. 86
B. 98 ✓
C. 72
D. 106
Answer: B
Q4. In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the WRONG number. 9, 19, 39, 78, 159, 319
A. 9
B. 39
C. 78 ✓
D. 159
Answer: C
Q5. What is the remainder when 987654321 is divided by 9?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 0 ✓
D. 9
Answer: C
Q6. If 11 -> 1331, 12 -> 1728, then 13 -> ?
A. 2028
B. 2400
C. 2197 ✓
D. 2500
Answer: C
Q7. If P + Q = 2R and R + S = 2P, then:
A. P + R = Q + S ✓
B. P + R = 2S
C. P + S = Q + R
D. P + R = 2Q
Answer: A
Q8. Find the odd one out. Lucknow, Kanpur, Varanasi, Jaipur, Agra
A. Varanasi
B. Lucknow
C. Jaipur ✓
D. Kanpur
Answer: C
Q9. Given in the table are the number codes for the given letters. Select the combination of numbers so that the letters arranged accordingly will form a meaningful word. 5 4 3 2 1 R O I C D
A. 2, 4, 5, 3, 3, 1, 4, 5
B. 2, 4, 5, 5, 3, 1, 4, 5 ✓
C. 2, 5, 5, 3, 1, 4, 5, 4
D. 2, 4, 4, 5, 3, 1, 3, 5
Answer: B
Q10. When all the digits of the number '8372625374895' are arranged in descending order, what is the number obtained when the 3rd digit from the right end is subtracted from the 4th digit from the left, after replacement?
A. 4 ✓
B. 8
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: A
Q11. A man rows 12 km downstream in 3 hours and 6 km upstream in 2 hours. What is the speed of the stream?
A. 1 km/h
B. 0.5 km/h ✓
C. 2 km/h
D. 1.5 km/h
Answer: B
Q12. Find the missing number: 12 : 441 :: 13 : ?
A. 961 ✓
B. 967
C. 964
D. 965
Answer: A
Q13. Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows. Statement: Some trees are tall. All tall things are visible. Conclusions: I. Some trees are visible. II. All trees are visible.
A. Only I follows ✓
B. Only II follows
C. Both I and II follow
D. Neither I nor II follows
Answer: A
Q14. Read the following statement carefully and identify the assumption that follows. Statement: A school circular states: "Mobile phones are not allowed inside classrooms." Assumptions: I. Phones distract students. II. Students often bring phones to class.
A. Only I is implicit
B. Only II is implicit
C. Both are implicit ✓
D. Neither is implicit
Answer: C
Q15. What is the next number in the series? 625, 125, 25, _____
A. 10
B. 5 ✓
C. 15
D. 1
Answer: B
Q16. What comes next? AZ, BY, CX, DW, ?
A. EV ✓
B. FU
C. GT
D. HS
Answer: A
Q17. If "DELHI" is coded as "CDKGH", how is "MUMBAI" coded?
A. LTLABH
B. LTLAZH ✓
C. LULABH
D. KTLAAH
Answer: B
Q18. What comes next? AG, BH, CI, ?
A. DJ ✓
B. EK
C. FL
D. GM
Answer: A
Q19. Complete the series. 2, 3, 5, 7, ?
A. 9
B. 11 ✓
C. 13
D. 15
Answer: B
Q20. A rectangular field has a length of 50 meters and a width of 30 meters. What is the length of its diagonal?
A. 58 m ✓
B. 56 m
C. 50 m
D. 54 m
Answer: A
Q21. If SMART is coded as UNCTU, how is TRICK coded?
A. UTJDL
B. VSKEL ✓
C. WKIRT
D. XPQYU
Answer: B
Q22. What is the product of all the digits on a calculator keypad (0-9)?
A. 0 ✓
B. 326592
C. 5040
D. 45360
Answer: A
Q23. If BRIDGE is coded as CSJEHF, how is CSJEHF coded?
A. DTKFIG ✓
B. DTJFGI
C. DSJFGI
D. DTKFHI
Answer: A
Q24. If in a code language, MOBILITY is written as NPCJMJUZ, how is EXAMPLE written in that code?
A. FYBNQMF ✓
B. EYBNQMF
C. FYBNRME
D. FZBNQMF
Answer: A
Q25. Which of the following is not an anagram of the word "INTEGRAL"?
A. ALERTING
B. RELATING
C. TRIANGLE
D. LITERAL ✓
Answer: D
Q26. The Chandrayaan-3 lander, Vikram, used which advanced technology for hazard detection and avoidance during landing?
A. Lander Hazard Detection and Avoidance Camera and Processing Algorithm ✓
B. Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR)
C. Laser Doppler Imaging and AI-assisted navigation
D. Laser Doppler Velocimeter
Answer: A
Q27. The process of "coral bleaching" within the Indian Ocean is most directly linked to:
A. Anthropogenically induced sea surface temperature increases ✓
B. Increased deep-sea mining
C. Increased levels of ocean acidification from river runoff
D. The effects of increased Arctic ice melt
Answer: A
Q28. The "Jal Jeevan Mission" aims to provide functional household tap connections (FHTCs) to all rural households by 2024. Which of the following is a key challenge in achieving this ambitious goal?
A. Lack of sufficient funding allocation for the mission.
B. Ensuring the long-term sustainability of water sources and the quality of water supplied. ✓
C. Limited participation of local communities in the planning and implementation process.
D. Absence of a robust monitoring mechanism to track progress.
Answer: B
Q29. What is a "mandapa" in traditional Indian temple architecture?
A. Gateway tower
B. Outer boundary wall
C. Pillared hall for worshippers ✓
D. Water tank
Answer: C
Q30. Which is the largest and most famous monastery in Sikkim, known for its colorful murals and mask dances?
A. Enchey Monastery
B. Rumtek Monastery ✓
C. Pemayangtse Monastery
D. Tashiding Monastery
Answer: B
Q31. Which of these writers won the International Booker Prize in 2021, along with translator Megan McDowell?
A. Olga Tokarczuk
B. Jokha Alharthi
C. David Diop ✓
D. Mariana Enriquez
Answer: C
Q32. Who won India's first gold in athletics at the CWG 2022?
A. Avinash Sable
B. Eldhose Paul ✓
C. Murali Sreeshankar
D. Neeraj Chopra
Answer: B
Q33. The Subsidiary Alliance system had which of the following conditions for the allied Indian rulers?
A. They were allowed to maintain their own independent armies.
B. They had to keep a British Resident in their court. ✓
C. They were free to enter into alliances with other Indian rulers without British consent.
D. They were not required to pay any revenue to the British.
Answer: B
Q34. What does the BSA, 2023 provide about secondary evidence (like photocopies or scanned documents)?
A. It is always preferred over primary evidence
B. It is admissible only if the original is lost, destroyed, or unavailable for valid reasons ✓
C. It must be printed in color only
D. It cannot be used in criminal cases
Answer: B
Q35. Which of the following Air Chiefs in India was commissioned into the fighter stream of IAF in Dec 1984?
A. RKS Bhadauria
B. AP Singh ✓
C. BS Dhanoa
D. Vivek Ram Chaudhari
Answer: B
Q36. Which among the following is NOT true about the Harappan culture?
A. They worshipped a male deity called Pashupati.
B. Women wore ornaments made of gold, silver, copper, and bronze.
C. There is clear evidence for the practice of Sati. ✓
D. Wheat and barley were the main crops grown.
Answer: C
Q37. Consider the following statements regarding minerals in India. 1. The Himalayan belt of India consists of copper, zinc, cobalt, and lead. 2. Most of the building stones, such as granite, marble, and gypsum, are found in Rajasthan. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are CORRECT?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 ✓
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Q38. With reference to the theory of demographic transition, consider the following statements: 1. For the initial two stage of the demographic cycle, a high fertility rate and death rate would result in high population growth. 2. In the third stage, both fertility and mortality factors would decline significantly. 3. The demographic transition theory does not explicitly take into account the migration factor. 4. Social and cultural factors can greatly affect the population, which can impact what the theory predicts. Which of the statements given above is/are CORRECT?
A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 2, 3, and 4 only ✓
C. 1, 3, and 4 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Answer: B
Q39. Which gharana was influenced directly by the dhrupad tradition?
A. Gwalior Gharana
B. Agra Gharana ✓
C. Jaipur Atrauli Gharana
D. Rampur Sahaswan Gharana
Answer: B
Q40. Which of the following statements about basketball rules and skills is/are correct?
A. Only 1 is Correct ✓
B. Only 2 is Correct
C. Only 3 is correct
D. 1, 2 and 3 all are Correct
Answer: A
Q41. In the context of medieval Islamic taxation, what did Khums refer to?
A. A tax on agricultural produce
B. One-fifth of war booty and hidden wealth ✓
C. A levy on trade caravans
D. A land revenue assessed annually
Answer: B
Q42. Where was the Yonex Sunrise 47th Inter State Inter Zonal & Junior National Badminton Championships 2024 held?
A. Bhubaneswar, Odisha ✓
B. Hyderabad, Telangana
C. Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
D. Guwahati, Assam
Answer: A
Q43. What does an alpha particle represent in the process of alpha decay?
A. Hydrogen
B. Helium ✓
C. Lithium
D. Deuterium
Answer: B
Q44. Fill in the Blank: Jhumar is a folk dance of _________.
A. Odisha
B. West Bengal
C. Jharkhand ✓
D. Gujarat
Answer: C
Q45. The Logistics Performance Index (LPI) is published by which international organization?
A. World Bank ✓
B. IMF
C. WTO
D. UNCTAD
Answer: A
Q46. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option: Statement 1: Income tax and dividends from PSUs are classified as revenue receipts in the government budget. Statement 2: Disinvestment in PSUs is also a revenue receipt as it brings income to the government.
A. Only Statement 1 is correct ✓
B. Only Statement 2 is correct
C. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
D. Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is correct
Answer: A
Q47. Alluri Sitarama Raju led the Rampa Rebellion in the 1920s, mobilizing tribal communities against British rule. He primarily operated in which modern-day Indian state?
A. Odisha
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Andhra Pradesh ✓
D. Chhattisgarh
Answer: C
Q48. What was the aim of the Sixth Plan (1980-85)?
A. Defense expansion
B. Faster industrialization
C. Poverty reduction and modernization ✓
D. Export-led growth
Answer: C
Q49. Identify the tribal leader who led the Kol Revolt (1831-1832) in Chotanagpur against British exploitation.
A. Budhu Bhagat mobilized tribal peasantry in Chotanagpur during the Kol uprising. ✓
B. Raghunath Mahato initiated a farmers' revolt against forced taxation.
C. Raghoji Bhangre led uprisings in Maharashtra's hilly terrain against colonial forces.
D. Tantiya Tope fought alongside Rani Laxmibai during the 1857 Rebellion.
Answer: A
Q50. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option regarding Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A): Globalization has led to increased outsourcing of services to India. Reason (R): India offers high-cost, low-skill services to foreign companies.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false. ✓
D. A is false but R is true.
Answer: C
Q51. Solve: sqrt((7*441/21+73-26))
A. 14 ✓
B. 15
C. 16
D. 17
Answer: A
Q52. If the simple interest on a certain sum of money for 4 years at 5% per annum is Rs. 500, what would be the simple interest on the same sum for 6 years at 7% per annum?
A. Rs. 950
B. Rs. 1,000
C. Rs. 1,050 ✓
D. Rs. 1,100
Answer: C
Q53. Sahil travelled a certain distance by bike at the rate of 25 kmph. And walked back at the rate of 4 kmph. If the whole journey took 5 hours 48 minutes, what was the distance?
A. 25 km
B. 22 km
C. 20 km ✓
D. 18 km
Answer: C
Q54. The angles of elevation of the top of a cliff from two points on the ground, 200 m apart, and on opposite sides of the cliff, are 30 degree and 45 degree. What is the height of the cliff?
A. 100(sqrt(3)+1) m
B. 200(sqrt(3)-1) m
C. 100(sqrt(3)-1) m ✓
D. 200 m
Answer: C
Q55. A cuboid has a volume of 350 cm^3 and its length is twice its height. If the breadth is 7 cm, find its dimensions.
A. 14 cm x 7 cm x 7 cm
B. 12 cm x 7 cm x 6 cm
C. 10 cm x 7 cm x 5 cm ✓
D. 8 cm x 7 cm x 4 cm
Answer: C
Q56. P starts a business with Rs. 8,000. Q joins after 5 months with Rs. 12,000. If the profit at the end of the year is Rs. 6,800, what is Q's share (approx.)?
A. Rs. 1,173.33
B. Rs. 2,173.33
C. Rs. 3,173.33 ✓
D. Rs. 4,173.33
Answer: C
Q57. The sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon is six times the sum of its exterior angles. Determine the number of diagonals in the polygon.
A. 67
B. 77 ✓
C. 59
D. 97
Answer: B
Q58. A trader marks his goods 40% above the cost price and gives a discount of 25%. If he gains Rs. 75 on an item, what is the cost price of the item?
A. Rs. 2500
B. Rs. 3000
C. Rs. 4000
D. Rs. 1500 ✓
Answer: D
Q59. A plot has an area of 625 m^2. If a footpath 1 m wide is constructed around it, what is the total area including the footpath?
A. 729 m^2 ✓
B. 676 m^2
C. 784 m^2
D. 756 m^2
Answer: A
Q60. A bag contains red, blue, and green balls in the ratio 4:5:6. If 6 red balls are removed and 3 green balls are added, the new ratio becomes 2:5:7. How many red balls were originally in the bag?
A. 12 ✓
B. 24
C. 36
D. 40
Answer: A
Q61. A train covers 3 equal distances at speeds in the ratio 4:5:6. What is the ratio of the average speed over the entire journey to the lowest speed?
A. 15:4
B. 60:17 ✓
C. 45:37
D. 60:13
Answer: B
Q62. A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables a person to buy 5 kg more for Rs. 200. What is the original price per kg?
A. Rs. 20
B. Rs. 10 ✓
C. Rs. 5
D. Rs. 15
Answer: B
Q63. The average temperature of a city from Monday to Friday is 40 degree C. If the temperature on Saturday is 45 degree C, what will be the average temperature from Monday to Saturday?
A. 41.35 degree C
B. 42 degree C
C. 40.83 degree C ✓
D. 41 degree C
Answer: C
Q64. An online retailer offers a Rs. 150 discount on an item originally priced at Rs. 1200. What percentage discount is being offered?
A. 10.5%
B. 12.5% ✓
C. 15.5%
D. 20.5%
Answer: B
Q65. A shopkeeper marks an article at Rs. 720 and gives a discount of Rs. 144. He earns a profit of Rs. 36. What is the cost price?
A. Rs. 500
B. Rs. 520
C. Rs. 540 ✓
D. Rs. 560
Answer: C
Q66. A train travels the first 100 km at 50 km/h and the next 100 km at 25 km/h. What is the average speed for the total journey?
A. 33.33 km/h ✓
B. 37.5 km/h
C. 35 km/h
D. 40.33 km/h
Answer: A
Q67. 66 women can do a piece of work in 79 days. Find the number of days required by 6 women to complete 1/11th of the work.
A. 75
B. 77
C. 80
D. 79 ✓
Answer: D
Q68. A rectangle has a length that is four times its width. If the perimeter is 100 cm, what is the area of the rectangle?
A. 400 cm^2 ✓
B. 500 cm^2
C. 540 cm^2
D. 640 cm^2
Answer: A
Q69. If sin A = 2x/(1+x^2), then what is tan A in terms of x?
A. 2x/(1-x^2) ✓
B. x
C. (1-x^2)/(2x)
D. 1/x
Answer: A
Q70. A tank contains 120 litres of liquid, 30% of which is alcohol. If 30 litres of this mixture is replaced by another liquid containing 50% alcohol, what is the percentage of alcohol in the resulting solution?
A. 34%
B. 35% ✓
C. 36%
D. 37%
Answer: B
Q71. What is the radian measure of 270 degree?
A. 3*pi/2 ✓
B. pi/2
C. 2*pi/3
D. 4*pi/3
Answer: A
Q72. If sin x = cos y and cos x = sin y, then x + y equals:
A. 45 degree
B. 60 degree
C. 90 degree ✓
D. 180 degree
Answer: C
Q73. A triangle with sides 5 cm, 12 cm, and 13 cm has an inradius of 2 cm. What is its area?
A. 10 cm^2
B. 20 cm^2
C. 30 cm^2 ✓
D. 40 cm^2
Answer: C
Q74. In a circle, there is a chord measuring 20 cm that is located 15 cm away from the center. What is the approximate radius of the circle?
A. 10 cm
B. 18 cm ✓
C. 20 cm
D. 25 cm
Answer: B
Q75. A tangent is drawn to a circle with a radius of 5 cm. At the point of tangency, what is the angle between the tangent and the radius?
A. 45 degree
B. 60 degree
C. 90 degree ✓
D. 180 degree
Answer: C
Q76. Read the passage and answer the questions: Modern research increasingly underscores the indispensable role of sleep in maintaining cognitive function, emotional stability, and physical health. Sleep is not a passive state of rest but an active, meticulously orchestrated biological process involving intricate neural and hormonal regulation. During sleep, the brain undergoes vital activities such as memory consolidation, synaptic pruning, and the detoxification of metabolic waste. Deprivation or disruption of this process has been conclusively linked to a heightened risk of chronic illnesses, including cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and depression. Establishing a consistent sleep routine is pivotal in optimizing the quality and restorative power of sleep. Erratic sleep schedules, often exacerbated by artificial lighting and digital device usage, desynchronize the body's circadian rhythms-an internal clock that governs sleep-wake cycles. This misalignment can lead to a condition known as social jetlag, wherein individuals experience chronic fatigue and impaired performance due to conflicts between biological and social time. Experts advocate for the cultivation of disciplined habits: retiring and rising at the same times daily, creating a dark and cool sleeping environment, and disengaging from stimulating activities at least an hour before bedtime. Moreover, while occasional short naps may be beneficial, reliance on irregular napping patterns can further fragment night time sleep and erode circadian stability. Ultimately, treating sleep with the same seriousness accorded to nutrition and exercise is essential for fostering resilience, productivity, and long-term well-being. Identify the correct form of the verb to complete the sentence: "Sleep is not a passive state of rest but an active, meticulously orchestrated biological process involving intricate neural and hormonal _________."
A. regulates
B. regulation ✓
C. regulating
D. regulated
Answer: B
Q77. Read the passage and answer the questions: Modern research increasingly underscores the indispensable role of sleep in maintaining cognitive function, emotional stability, and physical health. Sleep is not a passive state of rest but an active, meticulously orchestrated biological process involving intricate neural and hormonal regulation. During sleep, the brain undergoes vital activities such as memory consolidation, synaptic pruning, and the detoxification of metabolic waste. Deprivation or disruption of this process has been conclusively linked to a heightened risk of chronic illnesses, including cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and depression. Establishing a consistent sleep routine is pivotal in optimizing the quality and restorative power of sleep. Erratic sleep schedules, often exacerbated by artificial lighting and digital device usage, desynchronize the body's circadian rhythms-an internal clock that governs sleep-wake cycles. This misalignment can lead to a condition known as social jetlag, wherein individuals experience chronic fatigue and impaired performance due to conflicts between biological and social time. Experts advocate for the cultivation of disciplined habits: retiring and rising at the same times daily, creating a dark and cool sleeping environment, and disengaging from stimulating activities at least an hour before bedtime. Moreover, while occasional short naps may be beneficial, reliance on irregular napping patterns can further fragment night time sleep and erode circadian stability. Ultimately, treating sleep with the same seriousness accorded to nutrition and exercise is essential for fostering resilience, productivity, and long-term well-being. Choose the correct relative clause connector: "This misalignment can lead to a condition _________ individuals experience chronic fatigue."
A. who
B. which
C. where ✓
D. when
Answer: C
Q78. Read the passage and answer the questions: Modern research increasingly underscores the indispensable role of sleep in maintaining cognitive function, emotional stability, and physical health. Sleep is not a passive state of rest but an active, meticulously orchestrated biological process involving intricate neural and hormonal regulation. During sleep, the brain undergoes vital activities such as memory consolidation, synaptic pruning, and the detoxification of metabolic waste. Deprivation or disruption of this process has been conclusively linked to a heightened risk of chronic illnesses, including cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and depression. Establishing a consistent sleep routine is pivotal in optimizing the quality and restorative power of sleep. Erratic sleep schedules, often exacerbated by artificial lighting and digital device usage, desynchronize the body's circadian rhythms-an internal clock that governs sleep-wake cycles. This misalignment can lead to a condition known as social jetlag, wherein individuals experience chronic fatigue and impaired performance due to conflicts between biological and social time. Experts advocate for the cultivation of disciplined habits: retiring and rising at the same times daily, creating a dark and cool sleeping environment, and disengaging from stimulating activities at least an hour before bedtime. Moreover, while occasional short naps may be beneficial, reliance on irregular napping patterns can further fragment night time sleep and erode circadian stability. Ultimately, treating sleep with the same seriousness accorded to nutrition and exercise is essential for fostering resilience, productivity, and long-term well-being. What does "synaptic pruning" most likely refer to in the context of sleep?
A. Growing new brain cells
B. Strengthening all neural connections
C. Removing unnecessary brain connections ✓
D. Halting brain activity completely
Answer: C
Q79. Read the passage and answer the questions: Modern research increasingly underscores the indispensable role of sleep in maintaining cognitive function, emotional stability, and physical health. Sleep is not a passive state of rest but an active, meticulously orchestrated biological process involving intricate neural and hormonal regulation. During sleep, the brain undergoes vital activities such as memory consolidation, synaptic pruning, and the detoxification of metabolic waste. Deprivation or disruption of this process has been conclusively linked to a heightened risk of chronic illnesses, including cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and depression. Establishing a consistent sleep routine is pivotal in optimizing the quality and restorative power of sleep. Erratic sleep schedules, often exacerbated by artificial lighting and digital device usage, desynchronize the body's circadian rhythms-an internal clock that governs sleep-wake cycles. This misalignment can lead to a condition known as social jetlag, wherein individuals experience chronic fatigue and impaired performance due to conflicts between biological and social time. Experts advocate for the cultivation of disciplined habits: retiring and rising at the same times daily, creating a dark and cool sleeping environment, and disengaging from stimulating activities at least an hour before bedtime. Moreover, while occasional short naps may be beneficial, reliance on irregular napping patterns can further fragment night time sleep and erode circadian stability. Ultimately, treating sleep with the same seriousness accorded to nutrition and exercise is essential for fostering resilience, productivity, and long-term well-being. What is the meaning of "desynchronize" as used in the passage?
A. To align with a schedule
B. To disrupt coordination ✓
C. To improve timing
D. To duplicate patterns
Answer: B
Q80. Read the passage and answer the questions: Modern research increasingly underscores the indispensable role of sleep in maintaining cognitive function, emotional stability, and physical health. Sleep is not a passive state of rest but an active, meticulously orchestrated biological process involving intricate neural and hormonal regulation. During sleep, the brain undergoes vital activities such as memory consolidation, synaptic pruning, and the detoxification of metabolic waste. Deprivation or disruption of this process has been conclusively linked to a heightened risk of chronic illnesses, including cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and depression. Establishing a consistent sleep routine is pivotal in optimizing the quality and restorative power of sleep. Erratic sleep schedules, often exacerbated by artificial lighting and digital device usage, desynchronize the body's circadian rhythms-an internal clock that governs sleep-wake cycles. This misalignment can lead to a condition known as social jetlag, wherein individuals experience chronic fatigue and impaired performance due to conflicts between biological and social time. Experts advocate for the cultivation of disciplined habits: retiring and rising at the same times daily, creating a dark and cool sleeping environment, and disengaging from stimulating activities at least an hour before bedtime. Moreover, while occasional short naps may be beneficial, reliance on irregular napping patterns can further fragment night time sleep and erode circadian stability. Ultimately, treating sleep with the same seriousness accorded to nutrition and exercise is essential for fostering resilience, productivity, and long-term well-being. According to the passage, what is a recommended practice to enhance sleep quality?
A. Taking long naps throughout the day
B. Using digital devices right before bed
C. Maintaining consistent sleeping and waking times ✓
D. Sleeping at random times depending on tiredness
Answer: C
Q81. Fill in the blank with the correctly spelt word. Their explanation was filled with _________ making it hard to discern the truth.
A. obfuscation ✓
B. obfusscation
C. obfascation
D. obfescation
Answer: A
Q82. Complete the collocation by choosing a suitable word to fill in the blank. Although the candidate lacked the conventional qualifications, she managed to secure the prestigious internship after her mentor discreetly _________ within the organization.
A. call it a day
B. to the point
C. in the long term
D. pulled a few strings ✓
Answer: D
Q83. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Quell
A. Suppress
B. Provoke ✓
C. Subdue
D. Restrain
Answer: B
Q84. Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Sitting on the fence
A. Supporting the weaker side
B. Remaining undecided ✓
C. Taking immediate action
D. Speaking openly
Answer: B
Q85. Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Make a clean breast of it
A. To admit something honestly ✓
B. To run away quickly
C. To change sides
D. To start a new job
Answer: A
Q86. Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Rising to the occasion
A. Performing exceptionally under pressure ✓
B. Evading failure with excuses
C. Taking advantage of a mistake
D. Over-preparing for a situation
Answer: A
Q87. Which of these is the correct spelling of a concept describing moral independence?
A. Autarky ✓
B. Autarke
C. Autorcky
D. Autorchey
Answer: A
Q88. Spot the correct spelling of a schizotypal personality adj.
A. Schizotipal
B. Schizotypal ✓
C. Schizotypical
D. Schitzotypal
Answer: B
Q89. Choose the correct one word substitute for: "A person who is fond of luxury and indulgence in sensual pleasures".
A. Stoic
B. Aesthete
C. Ascetic
D. Sybarite ✓
Answer: D
Q90. Choose the correct one-word substitute for: A substance that induces insensitivity to pain
A. Sedative
B. Analgesic ✓
C. Stimulant
D. Tranquilizer
Answer: B
Q91. Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: Several of the evidences (1)/ presented during the hearing (2)/ were considered circumstantial at best (3)/ and irrelevant at worst. (4)
A. (1) ✓
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Answer: A
Q92. Change the following from active to passive: They had instructed us to prioritize systemic reforms.
A. We were instructed by them to prioritize systemic reforms.
B. We have been instructed by them to prioritize systemic reforms.
C. We are being instructed by them to prioritize systemic reforms.
D. We had been instructed by them to prioritize systemic reforms. ✓
Answer: D
Q93. Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The professor's dispatch of the rebuttal was swift and unyielding.
A. The war correspondent filed a dispatch from the front lines. ✓
B. The diplomat's dispatch was firm but delayed.
C. The minister's dispatch of aid drew criticism.
D. The editor hailed the dispatch of bureaucratic red tape.
Answer: A
Q94. Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: The suggestion that the vote had been manipulated was vehemently denied.
A. The vote denied the manipulation of the suggestion.
B. Someone denied manipulating the vote. ✓
C. It was denied that the vote had been manipulated.
D. It was denied that someone manipulated the vote suggestion.
Answer: B
Q95. Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: He suggested that we should to leave early.
A. should leave early ✓
B. will leave early
C. must to leave early
D. would leave early
Answer: A
Q96. Select the correct option for the Direct Speech conversion of the sentence below. The lecturer argued that, given sufficient entropic isolation, the reaction rate could asymptotically approach zero.
A. The lecturer said, "Given sufficient entropic isolation, the reaction rate could asymptotically approach zero." ✓
B. The lecturer said, "If sufficient entropic isolation was given, the reaction rate will asymptotically approach zero."
C. The lecturer said, "Given sufficient entropic isolation, the reaction rate can asymptotically approach zero."
D. The lecturer said, "If the reaction rate approached zero, it must have had sufficient entropic isolation."
Answer: A
Q97. A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. Father said, "Don't speak loudly."
A. Father said don't speak loudly.
B. Father told me not to speak loudly. ✓
C. Father asked not to speak loudly.
D. Father said to me not speaking loudly.
Answer: B
Q98. Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage: 1. The team identified the core issues that needed to be addressed. 2. Solutions were proposed to resolve these issues. 3. A report was compiled to outline the findings. 4. The team implemented the solutions based on priority.
A. 3-1-2-4 ✓
B. 1-2-4-3
C. 4-1-3-2
D. 2-3-4-1
Answer: A
Q99. Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. The process involves a specific set of tools and commands that allow for the manipulation and tracking of changes. 2. Version control is a system that records changes to a file or set of files over time so that you can recall specific versions later. 3. This is especially useful in software development, where multiple programmers can work on the same codebase simultaneously without conflict. 4. By using version control, a project can maintain a complete history of its development, allowing for easy rollback and collaboration.
A. 2-4-1-3 ✓
B. 2-1-4-3
C. 1-2-3-4
D. 4-1-2-3
Answer: A
Q100. Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage. 1. This can be achieved through regular reading and practice. 2. Improving vocabulary is essential for effective writing. 3. A wide vocabulary allows for greater precision and nuance. 4. It also enhances comprehension of complex texts.
A. 2-1-3-4
B. 2-4-1-3
C. 4-3-2-1
D. 2-3-4-1 ✓
Answer: D

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